Goodman: Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant

Chapter 01: Introduction to Concepts of Pathology

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following can be defined as the development of an unhealthy condition?
A. pathology
B. clinical pathology
C. pathogenesis
D. disease

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBERS: 1-2
RATIONALE: Pathology is defined as the branch of medicine that investigates the nature of disease, whereas clinical pathology is the branch of medicine that is charged with finding the solution to clinical problems. Disease refers to a biologic or psychological alteration that results in malfunction of a body organ or system. 

2. Which of the following conditions would have the least predictive natural history?
A. cerebral palsy
B. muscular dystrophy
C. total knee replacement
D. rotator cuff repair 

ANS: A
PAGE NUMBER: 2
RATIONALE: The natural history of a condition, disorder, or disease describes how it progresses over time. Most orthopedic conditions have a clear natural history, and some forms of muscular dystrophy have a more predictive natural history. Cerebral palsy patients have a wide ranging natural history, especially during the early years of growth and development.

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of an acute illness?
A. permanent impairment
B. residual physical or cognitive disability
C. the need for long-term medical management
D. disease with a rapid onset and short duration

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 3
RATIONALE: Choices A, B, and C all refer to chronic illness. Chronic illnesses and conditions require constant medical management and may be with a patient for life. Acute illnesses have a short duration and usually a rapid onset.

4. Which of the following is considered a natural part of the psychological process of dealing with illness?
A. noncompliance
B. paranoia
C. denial
D. persistent depression

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 3
RATIONALE: Denial is an unconscious defense mechanism that allows a person to avoid painful reality for as long as possible. Denial can be a natural part of the process of dealing with illness, which normally culminates in acceptance. The other three choices are never a natural part of the psychological aspect of dealing with illness. If any one of these other conditions persists, appropriate medical personnel should be notified.

5. A patient after recent and total knee replacement cannot climb stairs. Using the Nagi disablement model, what classification does the inability to negotiate stairs fall under?
A. disease or pathology
B. impairment
C. functional limitation
D. disability

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 4
RATIONALE: Using the Nagi model, total knee replacement would be defined as a disease or pathology. Impairment usually occurs at the organ/tissue level. It can be described as the inflammation after a total knee replacement. Functional limitations occur at the individual level and restrict the person’s performance of specific actions. In this situation a disability would occur because the individual would not be able to get to the second floor of her home.

6. Using the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF) classification system, which of the following would be defined as the execution of specific tasks or actions?
A. activity
B. activity limitations
C. participation
D. participation restrictions

ANS: A
PAGE NUMBER: 5
RATIONALE: Activity is defined as the execution of specific tasks or actions by the individual, and activity limitations are the difficulties that an individual might have in executing certain activities. Participation is the individual’s involvement in life situations, and participation restrictions are the problems the individual might have in real life situations.

7. A person with injury to the brain in the right hemisphere would most likely exhibit which of the following cognitive deficits?
A. decreased executive functions
B. poor complex problem solving
C. slowed information processing
D. memory deficits

ANS: A
PAGE NUMBER: 6
RATIONALE: Damage to the right hemisphere or frontal lobe often causes a decrease in executive functions. Diffuse and/or global cortical damage results in poor complex problem solving, and diffuse cortical/subcortical damage results in slow information processing. Memory deficits usually arise from temporal lobe damage.

8. In which type of cognitive deficit should the physical therapist assistant use repetition to teach the patient new activities?
A. decreased executive functions
B. poor complex problem solving
C. slowed information processing
D. memory deficits

ANS: B
PAGE NUMBER: 6 
RATIONALE: Patients with decreased executive functions should be taught time management techniques, and the client should be included in group activities. Patients with slowed information processing should have all environmental distractions removed. External aids and multiple approaches to improve retention of information should be used for patients with memory deficits.

9. Which of the following groups of people should focus on practicing healthy behaviors?
A. individuals with acute diseases
B. individuals with subacute diseases
C. individuals with chronic diseases
D. any individual regardless of disease process

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 7
RATIONALE: Healthy behaviors should be practiced by all individuals regardless of the presence of disease and/or a disease process.

10. Which of the following is not a principle of immunotics?
A. Immunotics is used to prevent illness.
B. Immunotics has no side effects.
C. Immunotics represents a group of immunity boosters.
D. Immunotics is used to treat illness after it occurs.

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 8
RATIONALE: Immunotics fends off infection and keeps the immune system working by using natural and organic substances. Immunotics has no side effects and does no harm. Antibiotics are used to treat illness after it occurs and can have very serious side effects.

11. Preventive medicine is categorized as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Primary prevention is characterized by which of the following?
A. regular exercise to prevent osteoporosis 
B. skin test for tuberculosis
C. colonoscopy for colon cancer
D. radiation for localized cancer

ANS: A
PAGE NUMBER: 8
RATIONALE: Primary prevention is geared toward removing or reducing the risk of disease factors, and secondary prevention techniques are designed to promote early detection of disease. Tertiary prevention involves therapies aimed at limiting the impact of an already established disease.

12. Which of the following was not a purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A. to identify all human genes
B. to map the genes’ locations on chromosomes
C. to determine the origins of humans on the planet
D. to provide detailed information on genes function

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 10
RATIONALE: The Human Genome Project was completed in April 2003 and provides a reference DNA sequence of the human genome. Because virtually every human illness and even many lifestyle-related conditions have a hereditary component, the Human Genome Project may hold the key to the prevention or cure of many, if not all, diseases and disorders.

13. The nucleus of nearly every cell in the human body contains _________.
A. amino acids
B. DNA
C. proteins
D. ribosomes

ANS: B
PAGE NUMBER: 11
RATIONALE: DNA instructs the ribosome to assemble amino acids. Cellular function is then directed to proteins containing the amino acids. 

14. What is the process by which a cell will undergo an acquired mutation?
A. The mutation is inherited from the mother or father.
B. The defective gene is delivered using a viral vector.
C. The defective gene is delivered using a nonviral vector.
D. DNA flaws are passed along from the mother cell to daughter cells.

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 11
RATIONALE: Acquired mutations arise during the normal process of cell division. Each day the body replaces thousands of cells. Some genetic errors occur as information is passed along from the mother cell to the daughter cell. The daughter cells should recognize mutations and repair them, but sometimes this mechanism fails. Acquired mutations can be passed on to daughter cells; they cannot be inherited.

15. In utero gene therapy (IUGT) is most beneficial for genetic diseases if gene therapy is performed _________.
A. immediately after conception
B. before symptoms have manifested
C. after symptoms have manifested, but before birth
D. after birth

ANS: B
PAGE NUMBER: 11
RATIONALE: IUGT is most beneficial for genetic diseases if gene therapy is performed before symptoms have manifested.

16. What type of gene therapy is the most controversial because it carries an unknown level of risk?
A. small molecule therapy
B. transferring a gene into cancer cells to make them sensitive to certain drugs
C. germ-lined therapy
D. In utero gene therapy IUGT

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 12
RATIONALE: Germ-lined therapy is an approach that delivers genes to sperm or eggs. It also can be delivered to the cells that produce sperm or eggs. This therapy is highly controversial because it carries an unknown level of risk such as interference with another gene and because of the required specificity of the insertion.